I’m not as familiar with the science as some on this site, so forgive me if I don’t know the correct terms for what Im trying to describe.
Ive heard/read something along the lines of “nandrolone has a greater binding affinity...this in turn leaves more T unbound and results in higher FT...this can also cause higher E2 because now a lot more of that unbound T will convert to E2...”
So in light of that theory, I guess I’m curious why we so often hear that T:ND dose should be at least 1:1, with some even saying it should be at least 1.5:1. Because it almost seems like it should be the other way around, with T dose lower than ND...at least based on the theory above.
Could someone please educate me on this?
Ive heard/read something along the lines of “nandrolone has a greater binding affinity...this in turn leaves more T unbound and results in higher FT...this can also cause higher E2 because now a lot more of that unbound T will convert to E2...”
So in light of that theory, I guess I’m curious why we so often hear that T:ND dose should be at least 1:1, with some even saying it should be at least 1.5:1. Because it almost seems like it should be the other way around, with T dose lower than ND...at least based on the theory above.
Could someone please educate me on this?