I understand the trial and error aspect of Arimidex dosages and how the dosage amount depends on the individual.
What I don't understand is why it is possible to have a dosage frequency that is so much greater than Arimidex's half-life of 46.8 hours.
For example, with testosterone cypionate we are warned against doing injections only once per 2 weeks because testosterone levels will fluctuate too much and crash if we wait 2 weeks before taking the next injection.
It seems intuitive that estrogen and Arimidex would be similar. If we take Arimidex once every 3.5 days when the half-life is about 2 days then our estrogen levels would fluctuate too much and increase significantly when we wait more than 2 or 3 days to take the next dosage.
I'm sure there is a reason why it is appropriate for the dosage frequency of Arimidex to be much longer than the half-life (unlike testosterone) but I would like to know what that reason is so I can better understand dosage frequencies for both testosterone and Arimidex.
What I don't understand is why it is possible to have a dosage frequency that is so much greater than Arimidex's half-life of 46.8 hours.
For example, with testosterone cypionate we are warned against doing injections only once per 2 weeks because testosterone levels will fluctuate too much and crash if we wait 2 weeks before taking the next injection.
It seems intuitive that estrogen and Arimidex would be similar. If we take Arimidex once every 3.5 days when the half-life is about 2 days then our estrogen levels would fluctuate too much and increase significantly when we wait more than 2 or 3 days to take the next dosage.
I'm sure there is a reason why it is appropriate for the dosage frequency of Arimidex to be much longer than the half-life (unlike testosterone) but I would like to know what that reason is so I can better understand dosage frequencies for both testosterone and Arimidex.
