Being treated for hyper compensated hypogonadism. Am I alone?
I've just been prescribed - ten days ago - testosterone gel on the basis of compensated hypogonadism, having total testosterone higher than laboratory reference range, free testosterone near the lower end of the range, FSH and LH both above upper reference range, SHBG twice upper reference range value, and a calculated bioavailable testosterone higher than reference range - and all consistent with repeated testing. Endocrine specialist investigation finds no primary hypothalamic or pituitary pathology. It was said that although my testosterone values are actually high they are nevertheless insufficient for my needs, hence the gonadotrophin response. All the cases of compensated hypogonadism that I've seen described have values of testosterone within laboratory reference ranges but I've not been able thusfar to find any similar examples where the testosterone is actually high but insufficient. Presumably successful treatment would thus reduce my total testosterone level into the laboratory range.
I suppose it might theoretically be compatible with testosterone insensitivity but I'm 71 and have had no signs or symptoms of androgen insufficiency until eight years ago, and I'm unaware that such insensitivity can develop thus late in life.
I'm puzzled and should greatly appreciate any views that can throw some light on this.
I've just been prescribed - ten days ago - testosterone gel on the basis of compensated hypogonadism, having total testosterone higher than laboratory reference range, free testosterone near the lower end of the range, FSH and LH both above upper reference range, SHBG twice upper reference range value, and a calculated bioavailable testosterone higher than reference range - and all consistent with repeated testing. Endocrine specialist investigation finds no primary hypothalamic or pituitary pathology. It was said that although my testosterone values are actually high they are nevertheless insufficient for my needs, hence the gonadotrophin response. All the cases of compensated hypogonadism that I've seen described have values of testosterone within laboratory reference ranges but I've not been able thusfar to find any similar examples where the testosterone is actually high but insufficient. Presumably successful treatment would thus reduce my total testosterone level into the laboratory range.
I suppose it might theoretically be compatible with testosterone insensitivity but I'm 71 and have had no signs or symptoms of androgen insufficiency until eight years ago, and I'm unaware that such insensitivity can develop thus late in life.
I'm puzzled and should greatly appreciate any views that can throw some light on this.
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