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Nandrolone is known to produce extremely low levels of prolactin on its own. This is verified by bloodwork in every guy running nandrolone by itself. It’s not an opinion, or a hypothesis. Run nandrolone by itself, and you’ll see that your prolactin level is rock bottom. So how could deca be elevating this man’s prolactin level and causing sexual dysfunction?


Deca could still be the problem, if prolactin was his issue. But it would have to be due to deca amplifying the effects of the prolactin produced by the testosterone he was taking. If prolactin was his issue, why would you blame the compound that produces extremely little of it? Wouldn’t the compound that is known to produce moderate to high amounts of prolactin be the more guilty compound? Again, that’s if he’s correct in assuming prolactin was his issue.


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