I’ve always had dark vials from hikma/Actavis but this time it is clear same manufacturer. I noticed it looks like the same tint as their progesterone vials and I’m concerned they mislabeled. I have picks of old vials vs the new clear one
So tbh the reason I asked was because my total t raised since adding arimidex so I thought maybe some of it might be due to crashing my estradiol and not just conversion but rather Hpta. My e2 tested at 11 total t is 800. Been feeling shitty for a couple months so it’s probably been like this...
Say in theory somebody is on exogenous testosterone and crashes their e2 with arimidex. Would this result in the production of LH even though they are on testosterone due to negative feedback (low estrogen)? Not that I would ever do that but just curious how the feedback loop would play into this
More to do with the ratio of androgens to estrogens/prolactin. Someone can have estradiol around 40 with little to no testosterone and develope severe gyno whereas another person can have estradiol of 100 or above with high Testosterone and not have any symptoms of gyno
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