I have made my own ephedrine/caffeine/aspirin cocktails, and the effects are nowhere near the old Xenadrine. I admittedly use far less caffeine than Xenadrine did, but I still wonder whether there's another piece to the puzzle. The euphoric effect I get from my mixtures is about 1/10th that of Xenadrine.
Xenadrine used ephedra instead of ephedrine, but I thought that the end result should be the same on that end since I am using the related standardized amount of ephedrine.
I mean, it definitely could just be I'm going far too low with the caffeine, but I still thought I'd feel something closer to what I felt then even if just for a much shorter amount of time.
Anyone have any ideas?
Xenadrine used ephedra instead of ephedrine, but I thought that the end result should be the same on that end since I am using the related standardized amount of ephedrine.
I mean, it definitely could just be I'm going far too low with the caffeine, but I still thought I'd feel something closer to what I felt then even if just for a much shorter amount of time.
Anyone have any ideas?
